In my previous post, I engaged the seminal texts which provide the backbone for the Prostestant conception of “justification by faith,” deconstructing the false notion that the “works of the law” to which Paul frequently referred are equivalent with “action,” unconditionally. Furthermore, I outlined how Paul’s discussion of the “works of the law” is utilized as a polemic against the Judaizers of Paul’s day who believed that justification was exclusivistically attained through identification with Jewish cultural and religious identification. Against these assertions, Paul argues that justification is not based upon becoming a “Jew,” but is rather located in identification with Christ through faith. As I have advocated, Paul does not, in his polemic against “works of the law,” mean to advocate that what one does (action) is immaterial to justification. Quite to the contrary, we will see that Paul understands “act” and “attitude” to be inseparably linked to one another and indelibly necessary to justification.
In Romans 3, Paul has completed his tour de force against the Judaizers, definitively eschewing the belief that justification with God is found through the Jewish system. To illustrate the alternative which he proposes (justification by faith), Paul conjures the example of Abraham:
1 What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, discovered in this matter? 2 If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about—but not before God. 3 What does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness."These first three verses are often quoted as the “proof” of Abraham’s justification sola fidei, by faith alone (without action). Especially noted by advocates of this position is the juxtaposition of Abraham being justified by “works” and Abraham’s justification through “belief.” However, if Paul’s argument from chapter 3 is kept in mind (as it should be, since it is the foundation upon which the logic of chapter 4 is built), it is clear, once again, that Paul is not saying that Abraham’s justification was unrelated to “action.” Rather, Paul is simply saying that Abraham’s justification came apart from identification with the Jewish system.
His first proof is the nature of the “crediting” of righteousness:
4 Now when a man works, his wages are not credited to him as a gift, but as an obligation. 5 However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness. 6 David says the same thing when he speaks of the blessedness of the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:In the Jewish mindset, righteousness was by proxy, by being identified with a particular cultural/religious system. However, Paul cuts through the inevitable logic of this “proxy-righteousness” by showing that such functions merely as a blackmail of God. In other words, the Judaizers believed that identification with the Jewish system automatically and unfailingly brought justification. However, Paul notes that this “forces” God hand, for those who work, their “wages” are credited as an obligation. In opposition to this, Paul wishes to argue that God’s justifying righteousness is free gift that is not “compelled” of God by one being identified with a particular cultural/religious system. The fact that God freely justifies the wicked apart from the wicked compelling righteousness from God, to Paul, highlights the ultimate freedom and giftedness of God’s justifying grace.
7 "Blessed are they
whose transgressions are forgiven,
whose sins are covered.
8 Blessed is the man
whose sin the Lord will never count against him."
Thus, in this argument, Paul has cleared the way of any conception that sinners can somehow compel the justifying grace of God by entering through a particular cultural/religious system (as the Judaizers believed).
The next movement of Paul’s logic is to strike at the heart of the Judaizer’s exclusivistic claims, the mark of “circumcision.”
9 Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham's faith was credited to him as righteousness. 10 Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, or before? It was not after, but before! 11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.Again, Paul takes a shot at the Judaizers logic. To the Judaizers, the ultimate transition from pagan to God-pleaser (Jew) was the mark of circumcision. To be circumcised was to be made a permanent part of the covenant community; the continual bearing of the mark of circumcision guaranteed one’s participation within the blessings of the covenant. In a dramatic move, Paul overturns the veracity of the mark of circumcision completely, advocating that the mark of circumcision is not only irrelevant to justification (as the Judaizers believed it to be), but moreover that it is of no worth at all. Again, Abraham is the ultimate archetype of Paul’s system, for Abraham was justified with God before the mark of circumcision was given to Abraham and his offspring. In Paul’s thinking, this dramatically and definitively undermines the exclusivistic claims of the Judaizers, for if Abraham, who became a “Jew” (circumcised) was justified with God before he became a Jew (circumcised), obviously justification is unrelated to participating in the Jewish cultural/religious system.
The rest of Paul’s argument throughout the chapter deals with the nature of the “promise” to Abraham, and solidifies Paul’s claims that the promise made to Abraham was made apart from the Jewish system. Therefore, to Paul, this can only reinforce the meaning that justification and receiving of the “promise of Abraham” come not from participation within the Jewish system, but rather through Christ who “...was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification” (25).
Because the rest of chapter is a reinforcement of Paul’s argument against the Judaizers, I will not engage the rest of it here. However, suffice it to say that the way in which Paul utilized the example of Abraham does not create the bifurcation between “faith” and “action” which many Protestant conceptions of justification by faith would affirm. Rather, the entire force of Paul’s argument through this, and the preceding chapter, is that the Judaizers are wrong in their contention that justification can only take place within the Jewish system.
Despite the above-referenced conclusions about Paul’s argument, many Protestants–even if they affirm that Paul was polemically writing against the Judaizers–will nonetheless attempt to bolster their bifurcation of “belief” and “action” by utilizing the example of Abraham. As the normal argument proceeds, Abraham was “credited” with righteousness because he “believed” God. Taken with a misunderstanding of Paul’s polemic against the Jadiazers and the exclusvistic conception of the necessity of the “works of the Law,” these advocates of the Protestant flavored “justification by faith alone” separate the nature of “belief” from “action,” advocating that belief is the justifying element apart from any conceivable “action.”
I would suggest, contrary to this contention, that the Protestant formulation of justification by faith alone completely misunderstands the way in which Paul and the other biblical writers understood the example of Abraham and the nature of his belief. A cursory look at the ancient writings about Abraham will sufficiently prove the point.
Genesis 12:This passage is quite striking, for it is packed with action. The word of the Lord comes to Abram. What does Abram do? “So Abram left, as the Lord had told him.” Abram’s obedience to the Lord is displayed in a definitive act–Abram leaves the only world, culture and religious system which he has ever known to follow after a mysterious God who has called him from among the people. The Lord makes a promise to Abram, and Abram believes. However, his belief is revealed not in an attitudinal shift or an existential alignment, but rather with action.
1 The LORD had said to Abram, "Leave your country, your people and your father's household and go to the land I will show you.
2 "I will make you into a great nation
and I will bless you;
I will make your name great,
and you will be a blessing.
3 I will bless those who bless you,
and whoever curses you I will curse;
and all peoples on earth
will be blessed through you."
4 So Abram left, as the LORD had told him; and Lot went with him. Abram was seventy-five years old when he set out from Haran.
Genesis 13:Again, the Lord commands Abram, telling him to “Go.” How is Abram’s “faith” revealed? “So Abram moved his tents...” As before, Abram’s faith is active; it is not an abstracted “belief,” but is rather the crisis of action in obedience to God.
14 The LORD said to Abram after Lot had parted from him, "Lift up your eyes from where you are and look north and south, east and west. 15 All the land that you see I will give to you and your offspring forever. 16 I will make your offspring like the dust of the earth, so that if anyone could count the dust, then your offspring could be counted. 17 Go, walk through the length and breadth of the land, for I am giving it to you."
18 So Abram moved his tents and went to live near the great trees of Mamre at Hebron, where he built an altar to the LORD.
Genesis 22:As before, the word of the Lord comes to Abraham. Abraham responds in his usual way, with obedience, with action.
2 Then God said, "Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about."
3 Early the next morning Abraham got up and saddled his donkey. He took with him two of his servants and his son Isaac. When he had cut enough wood for the burnt offering, he set out for the place God had told him about.
These three examples are just a microcosm of the example of Abraham developed throughout Genesis. Abraham was a man who believed the Lord–however, as noted above, his belief was not merely a metaphysical conception of faith that was divorced from action; rather, Abraham’s belief was action, and his action was his faith.
I mention these examples because they are critical in coming to Paul’s utilization of Abraham as an example of faith. If we think of Abraham merely through the lens of the one quotation of Hebrew Scripture which Paul uses (“Abraham believed the Lord and it was credited to him as righteousness”), we miss the grander narrative of Abraham’s life of obedience and active-faith that would have been the source from which Paul drew. Paul was a Jew–throughout his childhood and education, he would have heard the example of Abraham’s obedience to God rehearsed over and over again. All the stories of Abraham’s faithfulness to God would be indelibly at the front of his mind when talking about Abraham. Therefore, to divorce the historical, narrated Abraham from Paul’s utilization of Abraham as an example of “faith” is the greatest injustice that one could do to Paul’s logic in Romans 4.
Toward a Conclusion
The Protestant conception of “justification by faith [alone],” and its consequent bifurcation of “faith” and “action” is a behemoth doctrine that would require a concentrated and massive effort to deconstruct. Certainly a single blog posting is insufficient to comprehensively deal with every issue and objection that could be raised. Nonetheless, it is appropriate to at least outline some preliminary conclusions about what a deconstructed version of “justification by faith” might look like.
The obvious and necessary conclusion of such a deconstruction and rethinking of “justification by faith” is that one must eschew the hard and fast dichotomous relationship that Prostantant theology conceives to exist between “faith” and “works.” As such a bifurcation is based upon an inappropriate and uninformed equation of “works of the law” with “action,” a properly read Pauline theology reveals that not only are “faith” and “action” NOT antithetically related, but moreover that per the example of Abraham, they are intimately, necessarily and inextricably related.
In short, to have faith is to act, and to act is to have faith. There is no meaningful way in which what one believes can be realistically divorced from how one responds to God. Because of this undeniable reality, the classic workaround of the “logical” precedence of “faith” must be rejected also. Alternatively, our language and theology must be restructured to embrace the concomitant relationship between faith and action, visualizing them as a unified whole and not as competing or contradictory facets of human response to God.
I think the best illustration of this comes from Jesus’ words in Matthew 25:
34 "Then the King will say to those on his right, 'Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world. 35 For I was hungry and you gave me something to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me something to drink, I was a stranger and you invited me in, 36 I needed clothes and you clothed me, I was sick and you looked after me, I was in prison and you came to visit me.'In this passage, Jesus clearly and directly addresses the relationship between “belief” and “action.” The unrighteous were those who had believed that attitudinal change equated to justifying faith. They called Christ, “Lord,” yet their actions denied their claims. Jesus is disgusted with their “faith,” for it is not a true faith. Truly enough, it is theologically sound; they have clearly described Christ as Lord. Intellectually and propositionally, they have faith. However, they have neglected to do that which Christ has commanded. Unlike Abraham, when the call of the Lord to “Go” came, they did not go. Rather, they assented theologically, rationally, and propositionally to the call; but they did not ACT. Therefore, they and their “faith” is rejected–their actions revealed that their faith was no faith at all.
37 "Then the righteous will answer him, 'Lord, when did we see you hungry and feed you, or thirsty and give you something to drink? 38 When did we see you a stranger and invite you in, or needing clothes and clothe you? 39 When did we see you sick or in prison and go to visit you?'
40 "The King will reply, 'I tell you the truth, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers of mine, you did for me.'
41 "Then he will say to those on his left, 'Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels. 42 For I was hungry and you gave me nothing to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me nothing to drink, 43 I was a stranger and you did not invite me in, I needed clothes and you did not clothe me, I was sick and in prison and you did not look after me.'
44 "They also will answer, 'Lord, when did we see you hungry or thirsty or a stranger or needing clothes or sick or in prison, and did not help you?'
45 "He will reply, 'I tell you the truth, whatever you did not do for one of the least of these, you did not do for me.'
46 "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."
Conversely, Jesus praises the righteous, for they are the ones who have believed and acted–they are the ones who have had faith. It is not as if they did their actions to force God to justify them–as they narrative goes, they did not even realize that they were feeding, clothing and visiting Jesus. They were simply being faithful to the command of Christ to “love your neighbor as yourself.” It is this act of faithfulness to Christ commands, not theological assent (which was identical for both the righteous and unrighteous), that was ultimately justifying to the “sheep.”
I understand that for many (including myself), what has been mentioned above is a radical redefinition of justification by faith. As mentioned in my previous post, the Prostestant conception of justification by faith [alone] has so engrossed the Protestant tradition that it is nearly impossible to suspend one’s inherited theological beliefs in order to look at Paul and Jesus’ teaching in a new way, a way which does not demand a hard bifurcation between “faith” and “action.” However, if we are to truly capture the core of what both Paul and Jesus were saying—that is, that faith is belief/action, that it is the concomitant crisis of trust and action manifested in the daily activities of our lives–we must try.
23 comments:
Tim--
I think this is a great point and reveals just how deep the philosophical presuppositions go in all theological reasoning and these issues must be fully engaged in any critique.
Exist, great post. I really enjoyed it. I appreciated that you clarified at the end that this is a redefinition of JBF as opposed to a rejection of it. I say this because I affirm JBF in the sense that we are saved by our faith in Christ, not because we have compelled God to give us heaven by our actions.
Your observation that:
The obvious and necessary conclusion of such a deconstruction and rethinking of “justification by faith” is that one must eschew the hard and fast dichotomous relationship that Prostantant theology conceives to exist between “faith” and “works.”
is spot on. I think that this is key. One cannot speak of faith in any meaningful and sensible way without corrosponding actions. It just sounds stupid. I wonder if it is modernity that caused this dichotomy to thrive, or after your inclusion of Mt. 25, I wonder if it is just a human problem.
It's kind of the old problem of paganism and our human desire to compel God to act - this time instead of our actions, it is our mental assent to a set of propositions. Your response to anonymous in the previous post was apt when you pointed out that anonymous was "commoditizing" salvation. That is a big part of the problem. It becomes an achievement on some level as opposed to a relationship. The more I study and think, the more I believe that "The Great Divorce" is one of the best books ever written.
Anyway, good post. Were you serious about the book thing?
email me
mofast--
I appreciated that you clarified at the end that this is a redefinition of JBF as opposed to a rejection of it. I say this because I affirm JBF in the sense that we are saved by our faith in Christ, not because we have compelled God to give us heaven by our actions.
Yeah, I would not want to get rid of JBF entirely, only the "alone" bit that's been tacked on the end (and that illegitimately, IMO). The more I look at Paul's argument against the Judaizers--especially as it is used to "clear the road" for us, the Gentiles, to be able to be saved--the more I am astounded at the logic of his writing in Romans.
I think that this is key. One cannot speak of faith in any meaningful and sensible way without corrosponding actions. It just sounds stupid. I wonder if it is modernity that caused this dichotomy to thrive
Yes, I think so.
It's kind of the old problem of paganism and our human desire to compel God to act - this time instead of our actions, it is our mental assent to a set of propositions.
Interestingly enough, I think the JBF(A) advocates come dangerously close to falling into the exact same thing of which the Judaizers were guilty. As you note, the "works of the law" have merely been "abstracted" into an "act" of faith. Fundamentally, however, there seems to be little difference as both acts force God's hand. The wages have once again become the product of divine obligation.
Your response to anonymous in the previous post was apt when you pointed out that anonymous was "commoditizing" salvation. That is a big part of the problem. It becomes an achievement on some level as opposed to a relationship. The more I study and think, the more I believe that "The Great Divorce" is one of the best books ever written.
I would, of course, agree with this. 50% of my musical compositions depend upon this book...lol.
Were you serious about the book thing?
Yes, of course.
Thanks for the perspectives Exist.
It's interesting to note that the phrase "the law" (Romans 3:28) is actually a bit misleading. In the greek there is no definite article, leading many theologians to believe that Paul wasn't merely writing about works of the Jewish law. But rather, he was addressing the whole law, written and natural.
Any thoughts???
By the way, I like the idea that faith=works. However, I don't think that it's possible to say unequivically that works=faith, as I am sure you agree (there are many atheistic philanthropists without faith).
Abraham's "actions" seem to stem from the belief that he had in God and His promises. Yes, the actions were there. Yes, actions are necessary (James 2). But, what I have come to believe is that faith is the foundation upon which the life of works is built. And works will be produced. We show that we have faith by our works, as did Abraham by leaving his country and "doing" what God had asked him to do. Which came first, the faith or the actions? In this case it seems as though his faith came first. Therefore he was justified before God in his faith, and before men with his works.
Also, you mentioned that you agree that it is possible that the "dichotomy" between faith and works is a product of modernity. I'm curious, how?
Augustine, Hus, and other "pre-reformers" weren't influenced by modernity. And it's hard to believe that Luther, Calvin, Beza, Cranmer, Hooper, Rowland, and all the other early Reformers were influenced by modernity, which is generally associated with the centuries following their lives. Also, if anything, they were products of the past, not the present. So even if the effects of early modernity were swirling around their circles, they were, while not immune, willfully ignorant of it.
This is a false argument that I see far too often: persons try to blame modernity for the woes and discrepancies of postmodern views. But Christianity is not a product of either. Christianty transcends culture. It's not premodern, modern, postmodern, or post-postmodern.
Just thinking outloud...
Thanks Exist,
Austin
Austin,
I can explain what I meant by the comment that "modernity caused this dichotomy to thrive".
I was not trying to say that the reformers were thorough modernists and that this thinking is to blame for whatever. However, I was wondering if modernity with its penchant for classifying and breaking down entities into their smallest components served as a fertile ground for the growth and distortion of the dichotomy of faith and works. As a side note, I think that modernity is to blame (in a manner of speaking) for the "woes and discrepancies of postmodern views" as I think that postmodernity is modernity fully realized.
While I would agree in a sense that Christianity transcends culture - in the sense that God is God regardless, as is Christ, I would be curious how you understood Christian thought as being at least influenced by the time and culture in which it has existed. I don't think that there is anything inherently bad about this. The Incarnation after all happened in a particular time and place and we must at least pay some heed to the fact that Jesus was a first century Jew. Now this does not mean that his message transcends time, but rather that the language which does not exist apart from context, does not transcend time.
Finally, in regards to faith and actions, I think that you are right in stressing the foundation of faith upon which works are built. But, I think that the point that James is getting at in chapter 2 is that you cannot say that you have faith without that faith being manifest in some very real way in your living. They have to go together. So yes, justified by faith, but you cannot have faith without works - so to claim that you are saved by your mental assent while you are stealing from orphans would be asinine. One example I have thought about today though, is John Wesley, who was told to "preach faith until you have faith, then when you have faith preach it because you have it." His works seem to precede his faith.
Anyway, good thoughts.
Mofast
I messed up, I meant to say that Jesus' message does transcend time, but that the language is within a context. Sorry.
Austin
Thanks for the perspectives Exist.
Thanks for your interest in and engagement with them.
It's interesting to note that the phrase "the law" (Romans 3:28) is actually a bit misleading. In the greek there is no definite article, leading many theologians to believe that Paul wasn't merely writing about works of the Jewish law. But rather, he was addressing the whole law, written and natural.
The absence of the definite article is true; however, I think the context of Paul's argument throughout 3 and 4 pretty clearly ground Paul's meaning of the "Law" in the Jewish system, apart from which Jews and Gentiles are justified through faith.
By the way, I like the idea that faith=works. However, I don't think that it's possible to say unequivically that works=faith, as I am sure you agree (there are many atheistic philanthropists without faith).
Ah, but I am not talking about "works" as in the attempt to please God through doing "X." Again, I think that way of looking at things creates an unnatural dichotomy betweeen faith and action. Moreover, I am not entirely sure that an athiest's act of mercy (if it is truly such, and not a bid for popularity or more power or a tax break) is antithetical to faith.
Abraham's "actions" seem to stem from the belief that he had in God and His promises. Yes, the actions were there. Yes, actions are necessary (James 2). But, what I have come to believe is that faith is the foundation upon which the life of works is built. And works will be produced. We show that we have faith by our works, as did Abraham by leaving his country and "doing" what God had asked him to do. Which came first, the faith or the actions? In this case it seems as though his faith came first. Therefore he was justified before God in his faith, and before men with his works.
I just don't see how one can make a distinction, logical or chronological, between "faith" and "action." The biggest thing to me, however, is that I do not see why one would want to make such a dichotomy. If it is not necessary nor warranted, it simply seems like a theological oddity to me that serves no real purpose. Further, and as I have already noted in my posts, it seems like the distinction is based purely upon a misreading of the text and not upon any philosophical or practical necessity. But that is just my opinion.
I am totally tracking with you here. It is worth mentioning, though, that Jesus does seem to draw some correlation between intention and faith. We see him denouncing people for doing apparent good actions with bad intentions and praising people who perform seemingly insignificant actions with good intentions. The contextual dependence of the action & Jesus' reactions should give us a clue that motivation is a factor in faith actions. We act in response to our understanding (or at least hope) that Jesus is actually Lord, yes?
If faith cannot be seperated from action, what then is this understanding/hope/intention to obey before it becomes action? Is it possible that faith begins with intention and is completed in action?
I don't see the problem with establishing a possible chronology to the "faith experience" as long as we acknowledge that both intention and action must be present for it to be faith. It is like an echo, if either sound is witnessed by itself, it really can't be an echo, can it?
It is interesting that Jesus often uses "fruit" language to talk about faith and action, which definitely has chronological (as well as ontological) conatations, don't you think? Did the widow with two mites only have faith after she put it in the coffers?
Just questions . . . I agree the bathwater has grown tepid, I just wonder if there is a baby clinging onto the drain plug.
bp
Exist and Mofast,
Thanks for the insights...
As I have come to understand actions/works/thoughts/beliefs/etc, I see them as the physical/mental "outworking" of a pre-existing internal (spiritual) condition. So, in reference to John Wesley, his works couldn't precede his faith because of the very fact that his faith caused his works. Even if the faith is not fully realized in the conscious, all actions are wrought when the internal condition (faith, etc.) becomes manifest... maybe...
This is something that I have been thinking about for a while. And as of now, I do believe it to be true: any action, of thought or deed, is the result of a pre-existing internal condition - which would even include faith itself, being the spiritual response of a penitent sinner to the grace of the conviction and illumination/regeneration of the Spirit of God.
I do agree partly with your (Exist) assessment: "The works of the law" as mentioned in Romans 3, among other places, does reference the Jewish law. And Paul, especially in Galatians, definitely discourages individuals from buying into the idea that one must conform to the old Jewish customs in order to be justified. But it seems as though more is at stake. Not only is conformity to the Jewish law futile, but obedience to the whole law of God is also futile, if done in order to please God - or coerce God into justifying a person. This is one of the major issues of the Reformation. The Roman Catholic understaning of merit - congruent, condine, and superrogatory - I think we all agree is faulty.
But perhaps what Paul meant to say was that "no man or woman will ever be able to achieve justification, it is a gift and must be received." It is a result of grace, and only faith accords with grace. Because only faith, which comes from God, is a completely divine product. And the works (good deeds, rights thoughts, internal holiness, etc.) are products of regeneration. We as new creations are given the Spirit of Christ that longs to serve others to the glory of God, to obey our heavenly father, and to see Christ exalted and magnified among the nations and people of the world.
Also, I'm not entirely sure that faith and works are distinct - as I think you affirm as well. They are separate, but not distinct, for they act in accordance with eachother. Justification is one rose in a bouquet of multi-colored and multi-scented flowers. They are separate, yet connected by the vase, which is the grace of God by which all things are upheld. When one becomes a Christian (is "identified with Christ" - I like that) the whole "package" (bouquet) of grace is received: justification, regeneration, sanctification (positional and progressional), redemption (propitiation), adoption, among other benefits, all leading to glorification in Christ.
Maybe we are closer to agreement on this issue than it seems. For I too affirm what you are saying, in part. I only wonder if what you are saying is sufficiently correct (or if what I am saying is sufficiently correct).
Have a Blessed Evening and Morning,
Austin
ben--
What's up!?! Long time no see. How are you?
It is worth mentioning, though, that Jesus does seem to draw some correlation between intention and faith. We see him denouncing people for doing apparent good actions with bad intentions and praising people who perform seemingly insignificant actions with good intentions. The contextual dependence of the action & Jesus' reactions should give us a clue that motivation is a factor in faith actions. We act in response to our understanding (or at least hope) that Jesus is actually Lord, yes?
I agree that intention is important. However, I still think the logical or chronological separation of intention from the act is artificial. After all, as physical creatures, every moment of our existence is "act"--therefore, on some level, intention is always at play. However, I don't think it is possible to say, "I intend to do "x," so now (subsequently) I will do "x." Every second--even those that seeminglly only involve the psychological motivation to "x" because of "y--is act that will become more act, ad infinitum. In this way, I guess, I am trying to get away from seeing "act" in relation to individual, chronologically separated moments in time. Every one of these "acts," in actuality, is prefaced by innumerable other "acts," so many, in fact, that the line between the "intention" to do "x" is impossible to discern. I would suggest this is because such a line does not exist.
If faith cannot be seperated from action, what then is this understanding/hope/intention to obey before it becomes action? Is it possible that faith begins with intention and is completed in action?
Well, I suppose that may be valid. However, I still think an artificial chronology is being made between "faith" and "action." After all, "intentions" are slippery things. I'm sure that Abraham's intentions in leaving his homeland to follow God, or taking Isaac to the mountain, were far from perfect or pure. However, Abraham's faith was not expressed in the purity of his intentions, but rather in obedience, perhaps even in spite of far from perfect intentions.
I don't see the problem with establishing a possible chronology to the "faith experience" as long as we acknowledge that both intention and action must be present for it to be faith. It is like an echo, if either sound is witnessed by itself, it really can't be an echo, can it?
Could you explain more fully what you mean by the echo metaphor?
My short answer is that, to me, it comes down to reflections upon being a human. We do not believe something and then act; nor do we necessarily act "because" (chronology) we believe. Our language may make designations like this; however, it seems more appropriate to me to speak of them as a concomitant reality. After all, if belief is impossible without act, then there can be no such thing as belief abstracted from act, for the very absence of act would preclude belief from being, well, belief.
It is interesting that Jesus often uses "fruit" language to talk about faith and action, which definitely has chronological (as well as ontological) conatations, don't you think? Did the widow with two mites only have faith after she put it in the coffers?
Yes, I think the fruit language could imply chronology. However, the fruit language, like all of our language used in discussing the relationship between faith and act, is metaphorical. This may sound like a cop-out (and it very well may be!), but I think the point of Jesus' teaching re: fruit is that those who are pleasing to God are those who produce fruit (mercy, justice, etc.), not that one's prior belief will (in chronological order) produce a result. In my understanding, faith/act is the cause of the fruit.
Just questions . . . I agree the bathwater has grown tepid, I just wonder if there is a baby clinging onto the drain plug.
Thanks for the interaction. I look forward to more!
Austin--
As I have come to understand actions/works/thoughts/beliefs/etc, I see them as the physical/mental "outworking" of a pre-existing internal (spiritual) condition. So, in reference to John Wesley, his works couldn't precede his faith because of the very fact that his faith caused his works. Even if the faith is not fully realized in the conscious, all actions are wrought when the internal condition (faith, etc.) becomes manifest... maybe...
This is one area were I would disagree, mostly on the basis of my monistic presuppositions about the constitution of the human person. While I would not dissolve the spiritual/soul into the material, I would also not see that the two are entirely distinct. While our language concerning "action" and "faith" may require chronological/logical distinction (although I am not entirely convinced of this), I see that the distinction which is assumed between "faith" and "action" is based more upon the way in which we talk about it (i.e., the limitations of temporally-qualified human language) rather than upon an actual necessity/reality.
As I look at the words and example of Jesus, the issue of faith/action is very simplistic, yet our tendency to create linguistic hierarchies tends to obscure the simple issue that is under discussion. Jesus clearly defines belief and faith on the basis of doing the will of God. He did not discuss the speculative chronological/logical relationship of "faith" and "action." Rather, both were dissolved into a very simple, straightforward rubric: Are you faithful to the will of God? Going back to Abraham, I see this singular motif powerfully present. Abraham's "faith" was not described as speculative, metaphysical assent. Such a defintion is more Kantian than biblical. Neither was Abraham's "faith" described as a "pre-existing spiritual condition." Rather, Abraham's faith is very simply described by what Abraham did.
This is something that I have been thinking about for a while. And as of now, I do believe it to be true: any action, of thought or deed, is the result of a pre-existing internal condition - which would even include faith itself, being the spiritual response of a penitent sinner to the grace of the conviction and illumination/regeneration of the Spirit of God.
I agree that faith is a response to God's initiative of grace. However, as humans are (as I understand it) a unity of soul/body, it is not possible that there could be a "spiritual" response without the whole person being dramatically involved in that response.
I do agree partly with your (Exist) assessment: "The works of the law" as mentioned in Romans 3, among other places, does reference the Jewish law. And Paul, especially in Galatians, definitely discourages individuals from buying into the idea that one must conform to the old Jewish customs in order to be justified. But it seems as though more is at stake. Not only is conformity to the Jewish law futile, but obedience to the whole law of God is also futile, if done in order to please God - or coerce God into justifying a person. This is one of the major issues of the Reformation. The Roman Catholic understaning of merit - congruent, condine, and superrogatory - I think we all agree is faulty.
I agree. Any system of thought (religious or not) which thinks that by doing "x" one will please God or justify oneself is heading in the wrong direction. I think of it in terms of the parent/child relationship: nothing my daughter does will "make" me love her--my love is a free gift to her that is completely unconditional (or at least should be--I'm not perfect!). God's justifying grace is the same--it is an unconditional gift that is given without reference to one doing "x" and "y" in order to merit it. However, I think that the Protestant conception of justification by faith alone comes dangerously close to advocating this very thing. Sure, the C,C,S of RCism has been eschewed. Nonetheless, as often expressed, justifying faith looks alot like the internalizing of merit righteousness. In other words, the effort to say that we are not justified by "works" has simply been replaced by us being justified by what we "believe." Neither are adequate, for both makes the "wages" an obligation on the part of God. Therefore, as you mentioned earlier, faith is a response to God's grace. However, when located in the response to and not cause of justification, "faith" can properly be united with "action," for it is by neither that we compel God's justifying grace, but it is with both that we respond to the same.
But perhaps what Paul meant to say was that "no man or woman will ever be able to achieve justification, it is a gift and must be received." It is a result of grace, and only faith accords with grace. Because only faith, which comes from God, is a completely divine product. And the works (good deeds, rights thoughts, internal holiness, etc.) are products of regeneration. We as new creations are given the Spirit of Christ that longs to serve others to the glory of God, to obey our heavenly father, and to see Christ exalted and magnified among the nations and people of the world.
I agree with your paraphrasing of Paul. However, I still have severe hesitations with the dichotomizing of faith and action. When divorced from or preceding action, what is "faith?"
Also, I'm not entirely sure that faith and works are distinct - as I think you affirm as well. They are separate, but not distinct, for they act in accordance with eachother. Justification is one rose in a bouquet of multi-colored and multi-scented flowers. They are separate, yet connected by the vase, which is the grace of God by which all things are upheld. When one becomes a Christian (is "identified with Christ" - I like that) the whole "package" (bouquet) of grace is received: justification, regeneration, sanctification (positional and progressional), redemption (propitiation), adoption, among other benefits, all leading to glorification in Christ.
While I would still disagree with the "separation" language, I completely agree with locating justification within the grander work of Christ in the life of the believer.
Maybe we are closer to agreement on this issue than it seems. For I too affirm what you are saying, in part. I only wonder if what you are saying is sufficiently correct (or if what I am saying is sufficiently correct).
I presume that much of the disagreement is manifested in the way each of us utilizes our language in regards to this issue. In my understanding, the "separation" between faith and action is primarily, if not exclusively, rooted in the temporal and linear nature of human-conditioned language, and not an actual, ontological separation. From what I understand of your thought, I think that you would affirm a more actual separation between the two.
Thanks, as always, for the intriguing conversation!
One quick comment- the Catholic Church, since Trent at least, has affirmed that justification can't be merited. Trent declares that the grace that leads to justification is completely supernatural and gratuitous; that the grace leading to justification cannot by any means be merited. Trent rejects both the idea that God could be coerced into justification (since it also declares elsewhere that God cannot be bound to an idea of justice, save that which God might freely bing Godself to) or that a person through their fitness could merit justification. (since it declares that a person can only be disposed to justifcation through the gratuitous and supernatural gift of grace.
Grace, according to catholic theology, doesn't find merit, but bestows it, so any meritorius acts arise from the fountain of God's grace. Also, while in catholic theology justification truly brings about a change in a person, (and the justification arises not from the fact that they are declared just but become just) this change is effected by the merit of the passion of Christ.
Thus, it could be that the medieval (and apparently not dogmatically defined, at least as explicitly as Trent) understanding of justification may have caused Luther to go for his sola fide. However, I don't think that the Catholic Church, at least since the definition of Trent, can be liable to an accusation of teaching that justifcation can be merited.
Wow, snazzy showing for the WCSN Kirk acronym contest.
Sacul--
Thanks. I figure, if you aren't going to show up in style, you had better not show up at all.
Deviant,
I may be wrong, it is very likely. But from what I have studied - see the 6th session of Trent to check me - faith is necessary to justification, but not sufficient. They believe that the grace of justification is fused into the person through the sacraments. There are 3 types of "merit" that can be achieved/received synergistically: congruent (merit that should be rewarded), condine (merit that if God didn't reward He would be unjust), and superrogatory (merit that is so meritorious that it overflows from the person and can actually be applied to others in purgatory - only a very few saints have achieved this type of merit).
The reason for this is that the Catholic church teaches that a person can lose justification if he or she commits "mortal" sin, as opposed to "venial" sin. It is called "mortal" sin because it "kills" the justifying grace that has been infused into the soul.
Faith is essential, it is necessary - as the latin renders it: faith is the "initio" (initiation), the "fundamentum" (foundation), and the "radix" (root). But faith is not sufficient for justification, in the Catholic view.
That is why the idea of "sola fide" is so essential to the protestant view. Faith is sufficient for justificaiton, not just necessary.
And Exist,
I appreciate your responses. You are being used of God to help me in my daily growth through your constant challenges. Thank you.
Austin
Exist,
I just have a minute here now. I will try to get back to look in more detail later. But, I believe your post and the comments I have read seem to ignore the necessity and effects of God the Holy Spirit's act of quickening or regenerating men so they can respond freely to the gospel (Eph 2:4-5). Justification is by faith alone by a faith that is not alone. The regeneration so changes a person that he responds with deeds or works. These are an effect of salvation, not a cause.
Jazzycat
I believe your post and the comments I have read seem to ignore the necessity and effects of God the Holy Spirit's act of quickening or regenerating men so they can respond freely to the gospel (Eph 2:4-5).
As I ahve mentioned in other comments, I do not buy into the compartmentalization of the classic "ordu salutis," as if each "stage" of salvation occurs in chronological/logical order, or that any stage occurs at a particular "moment" in time. Salvation and reconciliation of the human person is a reality that encompasses the whole of human life. Therefore, I personally think it is unhelpful to bifurcate or make distinctions in the "stages" of salvation, as if one stage must precede another. I think a more simplistic, relational conception of salvation more properly engages the biblical and historical witness of Christian faith.
Justification is by faith alone by a faith that is not alone.
Obviously, I disagree that justification is by faith "alone," for as I have shown in my post, "faith" cannot be separated from "action." I will agree, however, that faith is not "alone." The Holy Spirit is present throughout our lives bringing us to salvation and reconciling us to the heart of God.
The regeneration so changes a person that he responds with deeds or works. These are an effect of salvation, not a cause.
I agree that "works" are not a cause of salvation. But then again, faith is not either. Salvation is a divine work in which humans participate through faith/action. In this sense, causality really has nothing to do with it, in my opinion.
Thanks for your comments, and I welcome more!
Exist,
I may be wrong here, but it seems as if you may be basing your thinking on other than Biblical revelation. If that is the case then I would need to know this in order to have a meaningful dialog. If that is the case, please let me know and the details.
If that is not the case, then my next question would be do you accept any or all of the so called TULIP doctrines of Calvinism? The T meaning total depravity or better yet a condition that means man's will is in such bondage to sin that he is unable to choose God apart from God first taking action. This action is of course regeneration (John 3:3, 6:37, 6:44, 6:65, Eph 2:4-5, Rom. 9, etc.)
Affirming a need for works in addition to faith in the atonement of Jesus Christ renders his amazing work insufficient without the addition of man's contribution of works. I do not think we want to do that although the Roman Catholics do. Are you Catholic?
Jazzycat
jazzycat--
I may be wrong here, but it seems as if you may be basing your thinking on other than Biblical revelation.
What do you mean by this? Both your and my thinking is based upon our interpretations of what the Scriptures say.
If that is not the case, then my next question would be do you accept any or all of the so called TULIP doctrines of Calvinism? The T meaning total depravity or better yet a condition that means man's will is in such bondage to sin that he is unable to choose God apart from God first taking action. This action is of course regeneration (John 3:3, 6:37, 6:44, 6:65, Eph 2:4-5, Rom. 9, etc.)
No, I do not affirm a single tenet of TULIP. I think they are all based upon a false and artificial conception of the relationship of God’s will to that of human persons, whom God has created in the divine image. Obviously, I would assert that humans can do nothing without the grace of God, for truly in God do we “live, move and have our being.” However, our necessity of dependence upon God for life and existence does not, in my opinion, somehow mean that humans are incapable of engaging God personally and volitionally. Nor do I think that humans are so bound in sin that they are unable to respond to divine grace unless said grace creates a programmatic response. Such a conception of depravity, in my opinion, is nothing more than the annihilation of the image of God within humanity. While this image may be obscured by humanity’s sinfulness and emnity with God, I do not think that it categorically precludes sinful humans from responding to the universal gift of God’s grace in Christ.
Affirming a need for works in addition to faith in the atonement of Jesus Christ renders his amazing work insufficient without the addition of man's contribution of works.
I never said that we need “works” “in addition to faith.” This bifurcation between “faith” and “act” is precisely that which my post is directed against. God’s gift of salvation is completely free and unmerited; nonetheless, participating within this gift requires faithfulness on the part of human persons. This “faithfulness” is nothing other than “faith/act.” “Faith alone” is a misnomer, an unnecessary and illegitimate conception created by a complete misunderstanding of Paul’s teaching, not to mention a complete disregard of everything that Christ taught.
I do not think we want to do that although the Roman Catholics do. Are you Catholic?
Roman Catholics do not actually believe this. Were major sections of Roman Catholicism merit-based during Luther’s day? Of course, and his teaching began as a helpful corrective to it. However, by creating a bifurcation of “faith” and “action,” Luther went well beyond the biblical language and merely replaced the phenomenological “works” of the Roman Catholicism of his day with a neumenological system of “works.”
To your final question, I am not a Roman Catholic believer.
Exist,
Thanks for clearing this up. I will consider your views on this basis. It seems that our views really clash at the point of the extent of orginal sin.
Jazzycat
Exist,
O.K. I read this post a little slower and your view on action being different from works and part of justification is interesting and I believe what you are saying is extremely close to what I said in the following recent post of mine: (What is saving faith? What flows from saving faith?) The only difference is that I interpret action to be part of the definition of faith.... See the analogy that I give and see if that is not close to what you are saying.
Jazzycat
Jazzycat
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